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The Trinitarian rule? That is such bullshit (no offense).
I dont really know what jews believe. He is either referring to the trinity or speaking among the angels.
Then what was the purpose of the fruit?
I like have no clue. It could be used for later use or somehing. Idk.
Disobeying God IS sin.
Im not completely following your theory but I am not disagreeing either. Its plausible.
Subjective connotation? That's just another way of saying that the fruit gave them an emotional response to good and evil... in other words, knowledge.
No. It means that the moral code is full of subjective interpretations of good and evil. Its depends on the person.
You're just coming up with shit now. Does the Bible ever explain that angels have this moral code?
I don't make up information. This is just logical reasoning. If Lucifer could rebel and wish to take the throne he had to have knowledge of good and evil. Along with all the angels since some of them also rebelled.
Do you know what sin means?
Yes. It has a couple of meanings.
Why say "us" if he can't sin?
What does that matter? Saying us is the reference to the trinitarian rule.
God knew what he wanted and didn't want intelligent beings to do.
Eve only knew how to be obedient.
They have an natural born sense of right and wrong. Her act of disobeying apawned sin. She could have denied. If your theory held true Eve would only be able to obey God since he gave the initial command. Eve was convince.
Morals were required in his heavenly kingdom, which is known as heaven, so that the angel may understand God. To know good one must know evil and vice versa. Giving angels the ability to conceptualize their subjective moral codes so they may understand what good and evil was necessary if he wished to have such an intricate system of angels that perform certain tasks.
How are angels incapable of sin? Where in the bible does the claim become present?
So if evil didn't occur prior to humans, then how could anyone (or anything) have knowledge of it?
I don't think you are understanding. The moral code is composed of the subjective connotation of good and evil. God gave this moral code to all intelligent beings. Angels included. He didn't manifest evil within the sect of angels.
To understand good, you have to understand evil... which Adam and Eve did not, until they ate the fruit... but apparently God did, which contradicts the argument that God is without sin
That is illogical. For one your warrant doesn't even explain how it ties to God. God is without sin. However he is full of the knowledge of sin. Two different things. Adam and Eve disobeyed which caused a separation between man and God. This created sin. The knowledge of sin is not sin itself.
If he always existed, then he must have been alone at one time and if angels are also without sin, then when did he witness evil and attain knowledge of it?
God is revered as all-knowing. Meaning he knows the basis of everything since he is omnipresent. Angels were created without sin, but that doesn't mean they were incapable of sinning. God already possessed knowledge of evil. He must lay this in his moral code if he is the use thi to enhance the understanding of the angels.
He has to know that it exists in order to make a fruit containing knowledge of good and evil.
Not at all. All that is required is the knowledge of evil. He created a fruit that contained this knowledge.
God had to deliver a moral code before making humans. Logically in a moral code one must come to understand subjective good and evil and social good and evil. This knowledge was given to his angels. They have the ability to act freely. In order to even understand God you must have a sense of morality. So, God created the conceptual image of good and evil within morality. He didn't create the manifestation of evil which flourishes in equivalence to the distance between God and man. So if you say God did make evil as a concept then yes. I have to agree. He didnt however created sin or manifested evil.